I agree with Taniwha. Although at first "a natural English" seemed to be incorrect, upon hearing your reasoning as to why you chose it, I thought your choice to use it to have been a perfectly valid and correct one. However, I can't say that it doesn't sound a little bit strange.
If you wanted to remove all strangeness from the phrase, you could say "Can I actually learn a natural form of English?" or "Can I actually learn one of the forms/varieties of English termed 'natural'?" or something similar. There are many possibilities.
On the subject of strange phrasings, the following by some might be considered a bit weird:
But I understand it wrong now.
This is completely correct. However, there are many English-speakers who would say that it is not. The reason they will think that, is that they will think you to have meant to say: "But I understand [that] it is wrong now." They will suppose that you had omitted the "is". In fact, this is an instance of the 'double accusative' or you could say that it is a sentence containing an elliptical embedded phrase; that is, it is short for "But I understand it to be wrong now" - the "to be" being omitted.
A phrase of this sort would be much more at home in the England of antiquity. They would have recognized the correctness of the phrase, however I can't say the same for people alive today, particularly those in America.
Some more examples of phrases of this type:
I think you a fool (I think you to be a fool / that you are a fool)
I think you foolish (I think you to be foolish / that you are foolish)
I supposed him wrong (ditto)
I find it strange (ditto)
To minimize the possibility that a native English speaker will find this strange, you could say, "But I understand it to be wrong now." You may also say, "I understand that it is wrong now," "I understand it is wrong now," or "I understand the incorrectness/impropriety of it now."
In summary, it is perfectly correct, but others may not see it that way. In fact, there is nothing grammatically or logically incorrect with the majority of what you say. I am really impressed by your grasp of English and language in general - your English being far better than that of MANY native English speakers. The only problem with your way of writing is that it is sometimes unnatural, but I often disregard what is natural-sounding myself in favour of what is more correct from a logical standpoint.
Faumdano-
Faumdano wrote:it's a mistake (not sure why though).
The reason why English grammarians say that this is a mistake is that "right" is an adjective. It needs to be an adverb, since the sense of the sentence suggests that "right" is modifying the verb here. This is not grammatically incorrect, though. It is only logically incorrect, depending upon what you mean to say.
"To talk right" means "to talk and in so doing be right".
"To talk correctly" means "to talk in a manner that is correct"
A little known fact is that a great many verbs can be used as copulae ("to be"). Let me give you an example that will better illustrate the difference:
They entered noisy
They entered noisily
Most would say that the first is incorrect, but THAT is actually incorrect. The first suggests that "they" were noisy and that their being noisy was entirely irrelevant to the act of entering. The second says that that their manner of entrance was noisy. So the second doesn't say anything about the noise that they were making before or after entering - only that they were noisy while entering and their noisiness was in the way they entered; the first in essence says that they may have been noisy prior to entering and were at least noisy during and after the act of entering, but that it wasn't the case that their noisiness was in their way of entering - it was just incidental.
The reason this is is that, in the first sentence the verb "entered" is functioning in the capacity of a copula - that is, it is joining the predicate adjective "noisy" and the subject "they" just as "are" would and describing the subject - and in the second sentence, "noisily" is modifying the verb and indicating in what manner they entered.
Back to the phrase "to talk right," the irony of English grammarians describing this as being incorrect is in the fact that English grammarians for centuries have apotheosized the Latin language and attempted to model English after it out of a belief that it was perfect. Latin grammar though, holds that this is not incorrect. There are many instances in Latin where nouns and adjectives have been converted to adverbs without a change to the spelling of the word. For example, 'quid' in Latin means 'what' but for some reason over time it developed the meaning of 'why' (an adverb) as well. English speakers centuries ago actually would try to emulate this quirk of the Latin language with phrases like "I am something interested in this". 'Something' is a noun and yet, here, it is being used as an adverb to modify the adjective 'interested' (techinically 'interested' is a perfect passive participle, a verbal adjective). In fact, the phrase "a bit" as in "this is a bit strange" is obviously a noun, and yet it is being used adverbally to modify 'strange,' so why is it okay to convert one noun/adjective into an adverb and not another, as "right"? Grammarians, in my opinion, are of a very low quality these days, particularly English grammarians. For example, seventy seven percent of the usage panel of The American Heritage Book of English Usage voted that "We are seeking a plan to gradually, systematically, and economically relieve the burden." was incorrect and shouldn't be thought to be an example of correct usage on the basis that the infinitive was being divided by too many adverbs, whereas 87% of the panel thought sentences such as "We expect our output to more than double in a year." were acceptable! What?! That sentence should be "We expect out output to increase by a rate greater than double." or at least "We expect our output to do more than double." There is literally NOTHING grammatically or logically correct about the sentence that they approved. It is a really common phrasing, but absolutely incorrect. On the other hand, there is nothing wrong with split infinitives which are actually quite necessary in many cases. English grammarians have for whatever reason taken up their crosses against a linguistic phenomenon which they not only don't have any evidence to suggest is erroneous, but which is absolutely necessary in some cases to remove ambiguity! http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Split_Infinitive
So, going back to "to talk right" yet again, if you suppose Latin to be a supreme language after which all other languages should be modeled, then this is correct and has the meaning that its users mean for it to have; if you don't suppose this then, the phrase is still grammatically corrrect but doesn't, according to the current rules of English grammar, have the meaning that its users intend.
Last edited by ReceptviCanatvr (2006-10-05 01:43:50)